Complete Elliptic Integrals of Second Kind
After getting familiar with the AGM sequences and Landen Transformation, it is time to apply these concepts to evaluate elliptic integrals. Here we are going to focus on elliptic integrals of the second kind. To be more specific we are going to deal with J(a,b) defined by
J(a,b)=∫π/20√a2cos2θ+b2sin2θdθ
Our strategy (well actually Landen's and Legendre's) here will be to
analyze the defining integral under the Landen transformation
tan(ϕ−θ)=batanθ
In fact we will study the effect of a sequence of these transformations
applied to the defining integral for J(a,b). Setting the stage
with the following initial values
a0=a,b0=b,c1=a−b2
and
an+1=an+bn2,bn+1=√anbn,cn+1=an−bn2
tan(θn+1−θn)=bnantanθn
Δn=√a2ncos2θn+b2nsin2θn
(note
that unlike sequences {an},{bn},{cn}, the
sequence {θn} is a sequence of variable amplitudes and
not of constant real numbers) we are going to establish the following in order- Δn+1+cn+1cosθn+1=Δn
- Δn+1−cn+1cosθn+1=anbn/Δn
- 2Δn+1=Δn+anbnΔn
- dθnΔn=12⋅dθn+1Δn+1
- ΔnΔn+1=Δ2n+anbn2
- Δndθn−Δn+1dθn+1=cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1−anbnΔndθn
Initialization
And now come the laborious manipulations which must be appreciated for the fact they lead to such simple looking results in spite of their inherent complexity. The starting point here is to express θn+1 in terms of θn and calculate the derivative dθn+1/dθn as followstan(θn+1−θn)=bnantanθn ⇒an(tanθn+1−tanθn)=bntanθn(1+tanθn+1tanθn) ⇒(an−bntan2θn)tanθn+1=(an+bn)tanθn ⇒tanθn+1=(an+bn)tanθnan−bntan2θn ⇒cosθn+1=an−bntan2θn√(an−bntan2θn)2+(an+bn)2tan2θn=an−bntan2θn√a2n+b2ntan4θn+(a2n+b2n)tan2θn=an−bntan2θn√(1+tan2θn)(a2n+b2ntan2θn)=an−bntan2θnsec2θn√a2ncos2θn+b2nsin2θn=ancos2θn−bnsin2θnΔn Similarly
sinθn+1=(an+bn)sinθncosθnΔn Also we have (from the defining equation for θn+1)
dθn+1dθn=(an+bn)cos2θn+1(an−bntan2θn)sec2θn+2bntan2θnsec2θn(an−bntan2θn)2=(an+bn)cos2θn+1an+bntan2θncos2θn(an−bntan2θn)2=(an+bn)cos2θn+1ancos2θn+bnsin2θn(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)2 ⇒dθn+1dθn=(an+bn)(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)Δ2n Now that the preliminary setup is done we can prove the desired results
Proof for 1) Δn+1+cn+1cosθn+1=Δn We have
Δn+1=√a2n+1cos2θn+1+b2n+1sin2θn+1=√(an+bn)2cos2θn+1+4anbnsin2θn+12=(an+bn)√(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)2+4anbnsin2θncos2θn2Δn=(an+bn)√(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)22Δn=(an+bn)(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)2Δn Therefore (from definition of cn+1 and value of cosθn+1)
Δn+1+cn+1cosθn+1=(an+bn)(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)2Δn+(an−bn)(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)2Δn=2(a2ncos2θn+b2nsin2θn)2Δn=Δ2nΔn=Δn Proof for 2) Δn+1−cn+1cosθn+1=anbn/Δn Similarly
Δn+1−cn+1cosθn+1=(an+bn)(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)2Δn−(an−bn)(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)2Δn=2anbn(cos2θn+sin2θn)2Δn=anbnΔn Proof for 3) is obtained from adding 1) and 2).
Proof for 4) dθnΔn=12⋅dθn+1Δn+1 First we note that
dΔndθn=(b2n−a2n)sinθncosθnΔn=−c2nsinθncosθnΔn Differentiating 3) with respect to θn we get
2⋅dΔn+1dθn+1⋅dθn+1dθn=dΔndθn−anbnΔ2ndΔndθn ⇒2⋅dΔn+1dθn+1dθn+1=(dΔndθn−anbnΔ2ndΔndθn)dθn ⇒2c2n+1sinθn+1cosθn+1Δn+1dθn+1=c2nsinθncosθnΔn(Δ2n−anbnΔ2n)dθn Now putting the values of cosθn+1 and sinθn+1 and noting that
cn+1=an−bn2,c2n=a2n−b2n Δ2n−anbn=Δ2n−anbn(cos2θn+sin2θn)=(an−bn)(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn) we get
(an−bn)2(an+bn)(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)sinθncosθn2Δ2ndθn+1Δn+1 =(a2n−b2n)sinθncosθn(an−bn)(ancos2θn−bnsin2θn)Δ2ndθnΔn ⇒12⋅dθn+1Δn+1=dθnΔn Proof for 5) ΔnΔn+1=Δ2n+anbn2 We have
Δ2n+anbn=Δ2n+anbn(cos2θn+sin2θn)=(an+bn)(ancos2θn+bnsin2θn)=Δ2n⋅dθn+1dθn=Δ2n⋅2Δn+1Δn=2ΔnΔn+1 (from (4) above)
Proof for 6) Δndθn−Δn+1dθn+1=cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1−anbnΔndθn The result in 5) can be rewritten as
Δn=Δ2n+anbn2Δn+1 Replacing Δn+1 using 4) we get
Δn=Δ2n+anbnΔndθndθn+1 ⇒Δndθn+1=(Δn+anbnΔn)dθn Replacing Δn on L.H.S. using 1) we get
Δn+1dθn+1+cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1=Δndθn+anbnΔndθn ⇒Δndθn−Δn+1dθn+1=cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1−anbnΔndθn
Having established these results it may still not be clear to the reader as to the overall goal of proving these results. The last result gives some indication about the path to reach the goal. It tries to estimate the change in the value of the quantity Δdθ as we apply the Landen transformation. Upon integrating these differentials we can find the change in the integral defining J(a,b) effected due to the Landen transformation. And we hope to add these changes involved in the series of Landen transformations to finally get the value of J(a,b).
It turns out that the series so obtained does not converge (because of the simple fact that Δn does not tend to zero as n→∞). So we modify our strategy a little bit and instead study the changes in the quantity (Δn−a2n/Δn) (this does tend to zero as n→∞).
Armed with this insight we can see that
a2ndθnΔn−a2n+1dθn+1Δn+1=(a2n−2a2n+1)dθnΔn=(a2n−b2n2−anbn)dθnΔn Thus
a2ndθnΔn−a2n+1dθn+1Δn+1=12c2ndθnΔn−anbnΔndθn Using this result with 6) we get
(Δn−a2nΔn)dθn−(Δn+1−a2n+1Δn+1)dθn+1=cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1−12c2ndθnΔn=cn+1cosθn+1dθn+1−12⋅2nc2ndθoΔo (using (4) to get from dθn to dθo)
Putting n=0,1,2,… and on adding and integrating the result we get (here we use the fact that (Δn−a2n/Δn) tends to zero as n→∞)
∫θ00Δ0dθ−a20∫θ00dθΔ0=c1sinθ1+c2sinθ2+c3sinθ3+⋯ −12(c20+2c21+4c22+8c23+⋯)∫θ00dθΔ0 Putting θ0=π/2 and noting that θ1=π,θ2=2π… (and in general θn=2n−1π) we get
J(a,b)=(a2−12∞∑n=02nc2n)I(a,b)
and finally the elliptic integral of second kinds gets expressed in terms of AGM and the associated sequence.Formula for J(a, b): An Alternative Approach
The above proof of the formula for J(a,b) is somewhat cumbersome and indirect. By studying a closely related integral L(a,b) defined by
L(a,b)=(a2−b2)∫π/20sin2θdθ√a2cos2θ+b2sin2θ
one can arrive at the formula for J(a,b) established earlier.As can be easily seen, this integral is related to J(a,b) and I(a,b) as follows
L(a,b)=a2I(a,b)−J(a,b)
The idea here is to find a relation between L(an,bn) and
L(an+1,bn+1). To simplify writing it is sufficient to
consider the relationship between L(a,b) and L(a1,b1). We start with the substitution
t2=a2cos2θ+b2sin2θ
so that
tdt/dθ=(b2−a2)sinθcosθ=−√(a2−t2)(t2−b2)
and therefore the integral gets transformed into
L(a,b)=∫ab√a2−t2t2−b2dt
Now the substitution x=(1/2)(t+ab/t) leads us to
a21−x2=(a2−t2)(t2−b2)/4t2
x2−b21=(t2−ab)2/4t2
dx/dt=(t2−ab)/2t2
so that
dt√(a2−t2)(t2−b2)=±12dx√(a21−x2)(x2−b21)
The ambiguous sign on the right can be resolved if we observe that when
t increases from b to b1, x decreases
from a1 to b1 (so that we select the - sign here)
and when t increases from b1 to a, x
increases from b1 to a1 (so that we select the +
sign here).Also note that we have
t=x±√x2−b21
which leads us toL(a,b)=∫ab(a2−t2)√(a2−t2)(t2−b2)dt=∫abϕ(t)√(a2−t2)(t2−b2)dt=12∫a1b1ψ(x)√(a21−x2)(x2−b21)dx where ϕ(t)=a2−t2 and
ψ(x)=ϕ(x+√x2−b21)+ϕ(x−√x2−b21)=a2−(x+√x2−ab)2+a2−(x−√x2−ab)2=2a2+2ab−4x2=a2−b2+(a2+2ab+b2)−4x2=(a2−b2)+4(a21−x2) We thus get
L(a,b)=a2−b22∫a1b1dx√(a21−x2)(x2−b21)+2∫a1b1√a21−x2x2−b21dx
The first integral on the right hand side is I(a1,b1) which is the same as I(a,b) (use the substitution x2=a21cos2θ+b21sin2θ) so we have the recursive relation for L(a,b) as follows
L(a,b)=(1/2)(a2−b2)I(a,b)+2L(a1,b1)
Dividing both sides by I(a,b) we get
L(a0,b0)I(a,b)=12c20+2L(a1,b1)I(a,b)
and a repeated application of this identity gives us
L(a,b)I(a,b)=12(c20+2c21+⋯+2n−1c2n−1)+2nL(an,bn)I(a,b)
Now 2nL(an,bn)→0
as n→∞ (this is clear from the fact that 2n(a2n−b2n)→0 as n→∞).Therefore on letting n→∞ we get
L(a,b)=(12∞∑n=02nc2n)I(a,b)
Using the relation between L(a,b) and J(a,b) we get
J(a,b)=(a2−12∞∑n=02nc2n)I(a,b)
We
are now in a position to state and prove the Brent-Salamin AGM formula
for π and this will be done in the next post.Print/PDF Version
Hi there,
I really like this blog, I’ve found it fascinating. I was wondering if you could tell me where you found the alternative proof above?
Thanks.
bob
March 20, 2013 at 2:16 PMHi Bob,
I read the alternate proof in some paper online. It’s an old entry so I don’t remember the source now. Sorry.
Paramanand
March 20, 2013 at 2:17 PMHi, Paramanand,
I found the limits in this post interesting.
From the Landen transformation section:
θn+1=arctan(bnantan(θn))+θn
Near π/2, the tan() approaches ∞. Therefore, it doesn't matter much what bn and an are, the arctan() is still π/2, and thus θn+1=2θn.
Later on, it took me a while to see the double sign reversal with ψ(x) .
As noted above, corresponding to t going up from b→a , x goes down a1→b1 and then up again from b1→a1 . This is reflected in the 2 versions of ψ(x) .
Since the overall integral is stated as ∫a1b1 , the result of the first part of the integral range above must be sign reversed. This is the 2nd ψ(x) in the expansion above. This corresponds to the part of the integral where the bottom √.. is negative, resulting in a positive ψ(x) component. The other ψ(x) has no sign reversals.
Thanks for the http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/ask hint for previewing. It was very helpful for checking the formatting. I hope it worked ok.
Thanks, a very informative section. --gjk
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February 8, 2015 at 8:41 PM