Introduction
There are numerous proofs commonly available online for the fact that the Euler's number e is irrational. Then going further we find that e is also a transcendental number which means that it can not be the root of a polynomial equation with integral coefficients and thereby transcends the powers of algebra in a sense. Again the proof that e is transcendental is also available on various places online.In this post I am going to present the proof that e is not a quadratic irrationality. This is based on the paper "Sur l'irrationnalité du nombre e = 2.718..." by Joseph Liouville.
An Elementary Proof that e is not a Quadratic Irrationality
What I intend to prove here is the fact that e is not a quadratic irrationality. Or in other words, e is not the root of a quadratic equation with integral coefficients. This follows simply from the earlier mentioned fact that e is transcendental. But here I would like to present a very elementary proof that e is not a quadratic irrationality. This proof is quite simple and easy to grasp compared to proof of transcendence of e (which looks very high-brow).I found this proof long back during my college years in some book by C. L. Siegel, but I am not able to find any references online for the same.
To start with, we assume on the contrary that e is a quadratic irrationality i.e. there exist integers a, b, c not all zero such that ae^{2} + be + c = 0\tag{1} Using the fact that e is irrational we can see that we must have a \neq 0 and c \neq 0. We can rewrite the above equation as follows: ae + ce^{-1} = -b\tag{2} For all positive integers n let us define \begin{align}\alpha_{n} &= \frac{1}{n + 1} + \frac{1}{(n + 1)(n + 2)} + \cdots\notag\\ \beta_{n} &= (-1)^{n + 1}\left(\frac{1}{n + 1} - \frac{1}{(n + 1)(n + 2)} + \cdots\right)\notag\end{align} Since we have \begin{align}e &= 1 + \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n!} + \frac{1}{(n + 1)!} + \cdots\notag\\ e^{-1} &= 1 - \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} - \frac{1}{3!} + \cdots + (-1)^{n}\frac{1}{n!} + (-1)^{n + 1}\frac{1}{(n + 1)!} + \cdots\notag\end{align} it follows that \begin{align}n!e &= n!\left(1 + \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n!}\right) + n!\left(\frac{1}{(n + 1)!} + \frac{1}{(n + 2)!} + \cdots \right)\notag\\ &= A + \alpha_{n}\notag\end{align} where A is some integer dependent on n. Similarly \begin{align}n!e^{-1} &= n!\left(1 - \frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \cdots + (-1)^{n}\frac{1}{n!}\right)\notag\\ &\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\, + n!(-1)^{n + 1}\left(\frac{1}{(n + 1)!} - \frac{1}{(n + 2)!} + \cdots \right)\notag\\ &= B + \beta_{n}\notag\end{align} where B is some integer dependent on n.
If we multiply the equation (2) by n! we can see that \begin{align}a(n!e) + c(n!e^{-1}) &= -b \cdot n!\notag\\ \Rightarrow a(A + \alpha_{n}) + c(B + \beta_{n}) &= -b\cdot n!\notag\\ \Rightarrow (aA + cB) + (a\alpha_{n} + c\beta_{n}) &= -b\cdot n!\notag\\ \Rightarrow S + R_{n} &= -b\cdot n!\tag{3}\end{align} where S = aA + cB is some integer dependent on n and R_{n} = a\alpha_{n} + c\beta_{n}. From the equation (3) above it now follows that R_{n} is also an integer for all values of n. We will achieve the contradiction by showing that there are infinitely many values of n for which R_{n} is not an integer. This is bit difficult and tricky but still very elementary.
First of all we can note that \begin{align}|\alpha_{n}| &< \frac{1}{n + 1} + \frac{1}{(n + 1)^{2}} + \frac{1}{(n + 1)^{3}}+ \cdots\notag\\ &= \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{n + 1}}{1 - \dfrac{1}{n + 1}} = \frac{1}{n}\notag\end{align} and |\beta_{n}| < 1/(n + 1) < 1/n so that |R_{n}| \leq \frac{|a| + |c|}{n} < 1 if n is sufficiently large.
In order to prove that R_{n} is not an integer we now only need to prove that R_{n} \neq 0 for infinitely many values of n.
We need to observe that \begin{align}nR_{n - 1} - R_{n} &= n(a\alpha_{n - 1} + c\beta_{n - 1}) - a\alpha_{n} - c\beta_{n}\notag\\ &= a(n\alpha_{n - 1} - \alpha_{n}) + c(n\beta_{n - 1} - \beta_{n})\notag\\ &= a + (-1)^{n}c\notag\end{align} Now it follows that all the three numbers R_{n - 1}, R_{n}, R_{n + 1} can not be zero simultaneously. For, if it were so we would have nR_{n - 1} - R_{n} = 0 \text{ and } (n + 1)R_{n} - R_{n + 1} = 0 i.e. a + (-1)^{n}c = 0 \text{ and } a + (-1)^{n + 1}c = 0 i.e. c = 0 which is not the case.
Hence it follows that there are infinitely many values of n for which R_{n} is non-zero and therefore there will be a value of n for which 0 < |R_{n}| < 1 so that R_{n} is not an integer for some value of n. This is the contradiction we needed to achieve and thus it follows that there can not be integers a, b, c such that ae^{2} + be + c = 0.
There is an alternative and simpler way to obtain the desired contradiction. Since we have |R_{n}| < 1 for all n > |a| + |c| it follows that the only way for R_{n} to be an integer is that R_{n} = 0 for all values of n > |a| + |c|. This means that \begin{align} a\alpha_{n} + c\beta_{n} &= 0\notag\\ \Rightarrow \frac{\alpha_{n}}{\beta_{n}} &= -\frac{c}{a}\notag\end{align} Now the RHS of the above equation is a constant and hence is of constant sign. But on the LHS, \alpha_{n} is positive and \beta_{n} is alternating sign as n increases one by one. Hence we arrive at a contradiction.
The above also establishes that e^{2} is irrational. In the next post we provide another elementary proof of this fact.
Note: The proof above was originally given by Liouville and perhaps independently discovered by C. L. Siegel who included it in his book "Transcendental Numbers".
A simpler proof can be provided if we consider the continued fraction of e given by e = 2 + \frac{1}{1+}\frac{1}{2+}\frac{1}{1+}\frac{1}{1+}\frac{1}{4+}\frac{1}{1+}\frac{1}{1+}\frac{1}{6+}\frac{1}{1+}\cdots Since the above continued fraction is not periodic it follows that e is not a quadratic irrational. The main difficulty in this proof is establishing the above continued fraction expansion of e (see here, this proof is based on the continued fraction expansion of \tan(x) presented here).We can also use this continued fraction which is not periodic: \frac{e - 1}{e + 1} = \frac{1}{2+}\frac{1}{6+}\frac{1}{10+}\frac{1}{14+}\cdots
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Beautiful. I've looked at Liouville's paper from 1840 that you link to. I don't see how he proved it there. He does start with equation (2) and produces alpha_n and beta_n, then goes into hand-waving mode. The Siegel book will be helpful as well.
Best,
Mike Bertrand
http://nonagon.org/ExLibris/tags/mathematics
Mike
February 8, 2018 at 5:14 AM